חֲקוֹת

הקים

that "justification" is not always the English for the Greek word which the Septuaginta do use. Also Numb. ix. 3, for nip chukoth they translate vouov, "the law," which the vulgar Latin calleth ceremonias, "ceremonies ;" and for the Hebrew word misphatim they give ouуkρшw, “comparation," the vulgar Latin "justification;" by which you may see how your translator useth even the Latin word, that you make so much ado about. Likewise in the fourteenth verse of the same chapter, the Septuagint translate chukath, twice together, vóμov; and that which the vulgar Latin calleth "justification of the passover," the Greek calleth σvvráğı, “the order of the paschal." Deut. iv., your vulgar Latin turneth chukim thrice ceremonias, "ceremonies;" and Deut. v. twice, and Deut. vi. twice, Deut. vii. once; and so commonly almost in every chapter. But in the chap. xi. 32, the Greek for DP chukim hath роσтάyμатα, where as in the beginning of the chapter he had dikaiμara; the Latin in both ceremonias, "ceremonies." By which it is evident, what the Greeks and Latins meant by those words, chap. xx. for this Hebrew word; and in another the Greek hath nothing but evroλas, "commandments." So hath he, 1 Reg. ii. 3, for DN, ÉvtoOp Aas, "commandments." "commandments." Also 1 Reg. viii. 58, for chukim he hath προστάγματα, and for misphatim he hath δικαιώMara, as he hath it twice in the next verse, where Salomon prayeth that God will defend his cause, and the cause of his people Israel, as the cause shall require. More examples might I bring, but for tediousness, to convince the bold rashness of this quarreller; but these may suffice all indifferent readers, and answer sufficiently for us. Within the New Testament, we translate dikaiμata "ordinances," or "statutes," seeing it is proved both by the Septuaginta, which calleth the same Hebrew word not only "justifications," but often "commandments," "statutes," "precepts," "judgments;" and the vulgar Latin interpreter, which commonly calleth it "ceremonies" or "precepts."

MARTIN, 2.

Martin. But be it that you may control them in the Hebrew, which none but fools will grant unto you: in the New Testament what pretence have you? do you there also translate the Hebrew word, or rather the Greek? The Greek undoubtedly you should translate. What reason then can you have why you do not? None other surely, than that which Beza giveth for himself, saying, that he rejected the word "justi

Luc. i.

fication," (notwithstanding it expressed the Greek, word for word, notwithstanding the seventy Greek interpreters used it to signify "the whole law," and in Latin it be commonly translated justificationes,) Annot. in notwithstanding all this, "for this only cause (saith he) did I reject it, to avoid the cavillations that might be made by this word against justification by faith." As if he should say, This word truly translated, according to the Greek, might minister great occasion to prove by so many places of scripture, that man's justification is not by faith only, but also by keeping the law, and observing the commandments, which therefore are called, according to the Greek and Latin, "justifications," because they concur to justification, and make a man just, as by St Luke's words also is well signified, which have this allusion, that they were both just, because they walked in all the justifications of our Lord. Which they of purpose suppress by other words.

Fulke. None but fools, considering what I have brought FULKE, 2. of the usage of that word, dikaiμata, will judge that it signifieth only "justifications ;" and all wise men may see that we have good warrant to translate it otherwise in the Greek testament, where it must needs have another signification. The concurrence of works with faith to justification before God, which the apostle doth exclude, Rom. iii., we may not admit. But justification by works, as St James teacheth, we do acknowledge. I hope you will not say that your Latin translator, against justification by works, translated the word so often "ceremonies," or that ceremonies of the law do concur to justification by faith. The commandments indeed are called "justifications," because the works of the law, if a man keep it wholly, are able to justify. Not that every ceremony or observation of any piece of the law is a justification, or maketh a man just; which you may better say, upon the etymology of the word, than that every particular observation of the law, or good work, doth concur with faith unto justification.

Martin. And hereof also it riseth, that when he cannot possibly MARTIN, 3. avoid the word in his translation, (as Apoc. xix. 8', bissinum enim rà dikaiŃjustificationes sunt sanctorum, "The silk is the justifications of saints,") ματα. there he helpeth the matter with this commentary, "That justifications Beza Annot. in Apoc. xix.

[ Τὸ γὰρ βύσσινον τὰ δικαιώματά ἐστι τῶν ἁγίων, Apoc. xix. 8. "Justifying of saints," Wiclif. "Righteousness of saints," Tyndale's, Cranmer's, Genevan, Bishops', Authorised version. "Justifications of saints," Rhemish, 1582.]

FULKE, 3.

MARTIN, 4. Bib. of the year 1577,

Matt. i. 19.
Luke i. 6.

are those good works which be the testimonies of a lively faith." But our English translators have another way to avoid the word even in their translation. For they say here, "the righteousness of saints;" because they could not say, "ordinances of saints;" and they would not say, "justifications of saints;" knowing very well by Beza's own commentary, that this word includeth the good works of saints; which works if they should in translating call their "justifications," it would go sore against justification by only faith. Therefore do they translate instead thereof "ordinances," and "statutes," where they can, which are terms furthest off from justification; and where they cannot, there they say, " righteousness," making it also the plural number, whereas the more proper Greek word for righteousness is courŋs, Dan. vi. 22, which there some of them translate "unguiltiness," because they will not translate exactly, if you would hire them.

Fulke. When Sikapata, Apoc. xix., are translated justificationes, they signify "just works," as I have already. proved the signification of the word to bear; beside that it is so used by Aristotle in his Ethics', who of justification before God, whereof we speak, understood never a whit. Therefore, if instead of "righteousness," which is the singular number, it were translated "righteous or just works," it were not amiss, in mine opinion. Although by "righteousness" in that place, is nothing meant but "good or righteous works," as Beza's note doth tell you.

Martin. And therefore as for "justice," and "justifications," they say "righteousness," so for "just" they translate "righteous;" and by most approv- this means, "Joseph was a righteous man," rather than a just man; and Zacharias and Elisabeth ". were both righteous before God"," rather than just; because when a man is called just, it soundeth that he is so in deed, and not by imputation only; as a wise man is understood to be wise in deed, and not only so imputed. Therefore do they more gladly and more often say "righteous men," rather than "just men;" and when they do say "just men," (as sometime they do, least they might seem wilful

[ Καλεῖται δὲ τὸ κοινὸν μᾶλλον δικαιοπράγημα δικαίωμα δὲ, τὸ ἐπανópowμa ȧdikýμatos. Arist. Ethic. v.]

[ Ἰωσὴφ—δίκαιος ὤν, Matt. i. 19.

Joseph cum esset justus," Vulg. "Joseph being a perfect man," Tyndale, 1534. “Joseph was a righteous man," Cranmer, 1539, Bishops', 1584. man," Genevan, Rhemish, Authorised versions.]

"Joseph was a just

"Erant

[3 ἦσαν δὲ δίκαιοι ἀμφότεροι ἐνώπιον τοῦ Θεοῦ, Luc. i. 6. autem justi ambo," Vulg. "Both were perfect before God," Tyndale, Geneva. "They were both righteous before God," Bishops' bible, 1584, Cranmer, Authorised. "Both just before God," Rheims.]

inexcusably,) there they understand "just"by imputation, and not in deed; as is to be seen in Beza's annotations upon the Epistle to the Romans. Note also, that they put the word "just," when faith is joined withal, as Rom. i., "The just shall live by faith," to signify that justification is by faith. But if works be joined withal, and keeping the commandments, as in the place alleged, Luke i., there they say "righteous," to suppress justification by works.

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Fulke. This is a marvellous difference, never heard of FULKE, 4. (I think) in the English tongue before, between "just" and righteous," "justice" and " righteousness." I am sure there is none of our translators, no, nor any professor of justification by faith only, that esteemeth it the worth of one hair, whether you say in any place of scripture “just” or "righteous," "justice" or "righteousness;" and therefore freely they have used sometimes the one word, sometimes the other. Therefore it is a monstrous falsehood, that you feign them to observe this distinction, that they join "just" with "faith," and "righteous" with "works." Do they not translate, Rom. ii. 13, "the hearers of the law are not righteous before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified"? Have you not again, "the righteousness of God is made manifest without the law, &c., by the faith of Jesus Christ"? And where you read, "the just shall live by faith," have you not immediately, "the righteousness of God is revealed from faith to faith, as it is written, The just shall live by faith"? then but the devil, which hath his name of slandering, would here invent a distinction of "just" and "righteous"?

Who

Martin. And certain it is, if there were no sinister meaning, they MARTIN, 5. would in no place avoid to say "just," "justice," "justification," where Tŷs dikaιoσύνης. both the Greek and Latin are so, word for word; as for example, 2 Tim. ὁ δίκαιος iv. 86. in all their bibles, "Henceforth there is laid up for me a crown KρTS of righteousness, which the Lord the righteous Judge shall give me at model,

[* Ο δὲ δίκαιος ἐκ πίστεως ζήσεται, Rom. i. 17. "Justus autem ex fide vivit,” Vulg. "The just shall live by faith,” Tyndale's, Cranmer's, Geneva, Bishops', Authorised versions. "The just liveth," &c., Rhemish.]

[ ἀλλ ̓ οἱ ποιηταὶ τοῦ νόμου δικαιωθήσονται, Rom. ii. 13. “ But the doers of the law shall be justified,” Rhemish, and all the versions.]

[* λοιπὸν, ἀπόκειταί μοι ὁ τῆς δικαιοσύνης στέφανος, ὃν ἀποδώσει μοι ὁ Κύριος ἐν ἐκείνῃ τῇ ἡμέρᾳ, ὁ δίκαιος κριτής. 2 Tim. iv. 8. “Corona justitiæ," Vulg. "Crown of justice," Rheims. "Crown of righteousness," all the other versions.]

[FULKE.]

22

&c.

έστι.

justum est.

KOS.

Non enim injustus est

Deus.

Tis dikaías that day." And again, 2 Thess. i., “Rejoice in tribulation, which is a κρίσεως. δίκαιόν token of the righteous judgment of God', that you may be counted worthy of the kingdom of God, for which ye suffer. For it is a righteous ov yap ad- thing with God, to recompense tribulation to them that trouble you; and to you that are troubled, rest with us, in the revelation of the Lord Jesus from heaven." And again Hebrews vi. 10, "God is not unrighteous to forget your good work and labour," &c. These are very pregnant places to discover their false purpose in concealing the word "justice" in all their bibles. For if they will say, that "justice" is not an usual English word in this sense, and therefore they say "righteousness;" yet, I trow, "just," and "unjust," are usual and well known. Why then would they not say at the least, in the places alleged, "God the just judge," a token of the just judgment of God," "it is a just thing with God," "God is not unjust to forget," &c.? Why is it not at the least in one of their English bibles, being so both in Greek and Latin?

FULKE, 5.

Fulke.

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Certain it is, that no Englishman knoweth the difference between "just" and " righteous," unjust" and 'unrighteous," saving that "righteousness" and "righteous" are the more familiar English words. And that we mean no fraud between "justice" and "righteousness," to apply the one to faith, the other to works, read Rom. x. 4, 5, and 63, of the Geneva translation, where you shall see "the righteousness of the law," and the "righteousness of faith." Read also against this impudent lie, in the same translation,

"Exem

[ Ενδειγμα τῆς δικαίας κρίσεως τοῦ Θεοῦ, 2 Thess. i. 5. plum justi judicii Dei," Vulg. "A token of the righteous judgment of God," all the versions, except the Rhemish, which has, "An example of the just judgment of God."]

[· οὐ γὰρ ἄδικος ὁ Θεὸς ἐπιλαθέσθαι τοῦ ἔργου ὑμῶν, &c. Heb. vi. 10. "Non enim injustus Deus," Vulg. "God is not unrighteous," &c., all the versions, except those of Wiclif and Rheims, which have "unjust."]

["For Christ is the end of the law, to justify (eis dikawoúvny) all that believe. For Moses describeth the righteousness (v dikaιoσávy) which cometh of the law, in these words, that the man which doth these things, shall live thereby. But the righteousness (dikaioovvη) which cometh of faith speaketh on this wise," &c., Rom. x. 4, 5, 6. Genevan testament, 1557. "For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness unto every one that believeth. For Moses thus describeth the righteousness which is of the law, that the man which doeth these things, shall live thereby," Geneva bible, 1560. Upon which passage is the following marginal note: "The end of the law is to justify them which observe it: therefore Christ having fulfilled it for us, is made our justice, sanctification," &c.]